Re: No consent for data sharing in the first place
"... never sought my consent to share my details [...], which is a GDPR violation"
Not necessarily. Data sharing may be performed on several alternative lawful bases, of which consent is only on unless the data falls into the Article 9 sensitive categories. Consent would only apply if that were the lawful basis declared by the data controller as being relied on for the specific purpose.
Of all the lawful bases, consent has received the lion's share of press, and therefore public, attention, resulting in a common but mistaken assumption that it is mandatory in all cases. Indeed if another lawful basis is legitimately relied on, consent can not be invoked, as only one lawful basis can be relied on for each specific purpose.
Biting the hand that feeds IT
