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I'm kind of curious about this now. I know the comments he made later kind of screw him over, but is it just a requirement to have heard the Miranda warning or could he argue he hadn't understood it given his being a foreign national? The Miranda warning itself isn't really a legal requirement in and of itself, it was something written to make it more likely people would be aware of their rights when they were arrested and so make it more difficult for a defendant to argue they didn't know they could stay silent. Not understanding it seems like it'd fall into the same category